SOLVETUTORMATH SOLVER

Instrument MI-02-458 · Finance

Put-Call Parity Calculator

State the call price, stock price, strike, risk-free rate and time to expiration — the instrument returns the put price parity implies, no volatility assumption required.

Instrument MI-02-458
Sheet 1 OF 1
Rev A
Verified
Type 02 — Options SER. 2026-02458

Implied put price, $

$0.122942

P = C − S + Ke^(−rT)

The working Every figure verified twice
  1. putPrice = 5 − 100 + 100·exp(−5 ⁄ 100·1) = 0.122942
Worksheet log
  1. No entries yet — change an input to log a scenario.

How this instrument works

Put-call parity is not a pricing model — it is an identity that must hold between a call and a put sharing the same strike and expiration, derived from a strategy called a conversion. Buy the stock, buy the put, sell the call: whatever the stock does by expiration, that combined position pays exactly the strike price, because the put covers a fall below the strike and the sold call caps any gain above it. Since that basket has a certain, fixed payoff, its cost today must equal the strike discounted at the risk-free rate — rearranging that equality gives P = C − S + Ke^(−rT), the formula this instrument solves.

The formula needs no volatility figure, which is the detail that separates it from a model like Black-Scholes. Black-Scholes prices an option from an assumption about how much the stock might move; parity sidesteps that argument entirely and instead asks whether two already-quoted prices — a call and a put on the same strike and expiration — are consistent with each other and with the stock and a Treasury rate. Options market makers and arbitrage desks run this check constantly: if a quoted put strays meaningfully from the parity price, a conversion or its mirror, a reversal, locks in a riskless profit until the mispricing closes.

The identity assumes European-style exercise, no dividends paid on the stock before expiration, and both options sharing one strike and one expiration date — loosen any of those and the equality drifts. A common misreading treats the output as proof the call is fairly priced; it only proves the two prices are internally consistent with each other. If the call itself embeds a stale or thin-market quote, the implied put simply inherits that same error rather than correcting it.

P=CS+KerTP = C - S + K e^{-rT}
P — implied put price · C — call price · S — current stock price · K — strike price · r — risk-free rate · T — years to expiration; e^(−rT) discounts the strike to its present value.
  • Enter Call option price, $ — the quoted market price of the call with the strike and expiration you are checking.
  • Enter Current stock price, $ and Strike price, $ — the two figures the call and put share.
  • Set Risk-free rate, % to a rate maturing near expiration, such as a Treasury bill yield.
  • Set Time to expiration, years — three months is 0.25, six months is 0.5.
  • Read Implied put price, $ and compare it against the put's actual quoted price to spot a mismatch.

Worked example — the $100 strike near parity

Take a $100 stock with a $100-strike call trading at $5, a 5% risk-free rate, and one year to expiration. The discounted strike is $100 times e^(−0.05×1), or $95.12, and the formula gives P = $5 − $100 + $95.12 = $0.12 — an implied put price of about twelve cents, the figure this instrument returns for those exact inputs.

That figure is not a guess about volatility; it falls out of the no-arbitrage argument alone. If the put actually traded at, say, $2 instead of near $0.12, an arbitrage desk could buy the stock and the put, sell the call, invest the net proceeds at the risk-free rate, and pocket the difference at expiration regardless of where the stock lands — which is exactly why liquid options markets keep quoted puts this close to what parity predicts.

Questions

Why does the formula not need volatility as an input?

Because put-call parity is an identity built from a riskless combination of positions, not a probability model of where the stock might land. A conversion — long stock, long put, short call — pays the strike price no matter what the stock does by expiration, so its cost today is pinned down by the risk-free rate alone. Black-Scholes needs volatility because it prices one option in isolation; parity skips that argument because it only ever compares a call and a put against each other and the stock.

What does it mean if the implied put price does not match the market quote?

It means the call, the put, the stock, or the rate used are not all quoted at the same instant, or a real friction — dividends, early-exercise value on an American put, transaction costs, or a stale quote — is driving a wedge between them. Small gaps of a few cents are typically just trading costs; a gap wide enough to survive commissions is what an arbitrage desk watches for, since it can signal a riskless conversion or reversal trade.

Does this formula work for American-style options?

Not exactly. The derivation assumes both options can only be exercised at expiration; an American put carries an early-exercise right that can make it worth more than the parity formula predicts, especially deep in the money or when rates are high. The identity holds as an equality for European options and only as a looser inequality once early exercise is allowed.

Does the formula account for dividends?

No, this version assumes the stock pays none before expiration. A dividend paid during the option's life lowers the stock price on the ex-dividend date, which lowers one side of the identity, so a correct treatment subtracts the present value of expected dividends from the stock price before solving. Skipping that step on a dividend-paying stock will make the implied put look too low.

Who actually uses put-call parity outside a textbook?

Options market makers and arbitrage desks use it constantly, as a cheap consistency check across a chain of quotes before committing capital — not to decide whether to buy or sell, but to confirm the call, the put, the stock, and the financing rate they are quoting do not contradict each other. A retail trader more often meets it the other way round, using a quoted put to sanity-check a call price without running a full pricing model.

Why multiply the strike by e^(−rT) instead of just subtracting it?

Because the payoff of the riskless combination arrives at expiration, not today, and a dollar received later is worth less than a dollar today. Multiplying the strike by e^(−rT) discounts it to its present value using continuous compounding at the risk-free rate, so the identity compares today's option and stock prices against today's value of that future strike payment rather than its face amount.

References

Read this first: This instrument shows arithmetic, not advice. Real offers add fees, taxes and terms that vary by lender and place — verify the figures against your actual paperwork before deciding anything.